Could Jesus, the Son of God, have sinned during the course of His earthly ministry?
This is a question about the impeccability of Christ. Impeccability means that he was unable to sin. Although some might question this fact, because Jesus Christ is fully God, it would have been impossible for him to sin. This answer gives rise to a second question:
If he could not have sinned, what then was the purpose of his temptation?
One might wonder, if Christ were unable to sin, what was the point of his temptation? It seems almost ludicrous to be tempted with something one is unable to do. In order to understand, we need to realize that Jesus Christ was both God and man. While remaining one indivisible person, he had two distinct natures.
Therefore, Christ’s temptations were different than those of ordinary man. Since he is infinite and holy God, the temptations must have come to him differently than to finite, sinful man. Sin had nothing in Christ onto which it could take hold. Hebrews 4:15 says, "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin." The difference between Christ and other men was that Christ did not have a sin nature. Nothing within Jesus Christ responded to the solicitation to evil. This could be compared in a limited sense to someone addressing you in a language you did not know. You do not have the facility to respond to that address.
How valid really then were these temptations?
One must always keep in mind that simply because someone is tempted does not demand the possibility of sin. We cannot assume, however logical it may seem, that just because the Devil solicited the Lord Jesus Christ with evil that he could have responded in a sinful way. One must not make an unbiblical assumption, especially one that strikes at the very core of the doctrine of Christ and salvation.
Why is it important to establish the truth that He could not have sinned (i.e., what problems arise if we were to affirm that he could have sinned)?
If Christ could have sinned, then he is not God. To say that God can be tainted with sin is to blaspheme the holy person of God. Since Jesus Christ is fully God, he cannot sin. Based on this truth, one can extrapolate along three lines:
This is a question about the impeccability of Christ. Impeccability means that he was unable to sin. Although some might question this fact, because Jesus Christ is fully God, it would have been impossible for him to sin. This answer gives rise to a second question:
If he could not have sinned, what then was the purpose of his temptation?
One might wonder, if Christ were unable to sin, what was the point of his temptation? It seems almost ludicrous to be tempted with something one is unable to do. In order to understand, we need to realize that Jesus Christ was both God and man. While remaining one indivisible person, he had two distinct natures.
Therefore, Christ’s temptations were different than those of ordinary man. Since he is infinite and holy God, the temptations must have come to him differently than to finite, sinful man. Sin had nothing in Christ onto which it could take hold. Hebrews 4:15 says, "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin." The difference between Christ and other men was that Christ did not have a sin nature. Nothing within Jesus Christ responded to the solicitation to evil. This could be compared in a limited sense to someone addressing you in a language you did not know. You do not have the facility to respond to that address.
How valid really then were these temptations?
One must always keep in mind that simply because someone is tempted does not demand the possibility of sin. We cannot assume, however logical it may seem, that just because the Devil solicited the Lord Jesus Christ with evil that he could have responded in a sinful way. One must not make an unbiblical assumption, especially one that strikes at the very core of the doctrine of Christ and salvation.
Why is it important to establish the truth that He could not have sinned (i.e., what problems arise if we were to affirm that he could have sinned)?
If Christ could have sinned, then he is not God. To say that God can be tainted with sin is to blaspheme the holy person of God. Since Jesus Christ is fully God, he cannot sin. Based on this truth, one can extrapolate along three lines:
- Because Christ is eternally immutable (Heb 13:8; 1:11-12), he is always holy and therefore unable to sin. Just as he was completely holy in eternity past, he remained holy at his incarnation. While Adam was originally created holy and free from sin but later fell into sin, Jesus' holiness infinitely transcends that of Adam's. Because he is infinitely, eternally, and unchangeably the God-Man, he has always been and will always be unable to sin.
- Because Christ is all-powerful, he could not be overpowered by sin. If Jesus could have been overcome by sin, which is finite, then he would not be omnipotent (infinitely powerful).
- Because Christ is one person with two natures, his divine nature cannot be overcome by his human nature. The two natures (human and divine) cannot be mixed or confused. If Christ's human nature could have violated his divine nature, then he would no longer be God.
In conclusion, it must be noted that if Christ could have sinned, he could not have been God. If he was not God, he could not have lived a perfect life, satisfying God’s righteous requirements, and he could not have died in our place, taking the punishment for our sin. To say that Jesus Christ could have sinned does violence to the very core of our faith and our salvation.
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