Scratching My Head

I have to admit, I'm struggling to figure this out. In Mark 13:30, Jesus tells his disciples, "Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place."

The "all these things" the verse refers to includes: the destruction of the temple (v. 2), the appearance of false messiahs (vv. 5–6, 21–23), wars and international tension (vv. 7–8), earthquakes (v. 8), famine (v. 8), political persecution and pressure of Christ's followers (vv. 9–13), the "abomination of desolation" (vv. 14–18), the greatest tribulation yet seen on earth (v. 19), the sun and moon darkened and the stars falling (vv. 24–25), and the coming of the Son of Man in glory (v. 26). So how or in what sense did all these things take place during the generation of the disciples?

All I can figure is that some parts of this chapter refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 (an "abomination of desolation"), but clearly, the Son of Man did not come in glory in A.D. 70. Anyone done any more work on this passage?

Comments

Don Johnson said…
Mark, I have heard this explained as referring to the race of the Jews, not one generation of 30 or 40 years. Here are a few lexical entries:

Friberg: 1) literally, those descended from a common ancestor race, clan, descendants (perhaps Act 8:33) as an ethnic group kind (Luk 16:8) (2) generally, all those living at the same time generation, contemporaries (Mat 12:41); (3) the time span of one generation age, generation, period (Mat 1:17).

Meaning 1 or 3 would yield something like how I have heard it explained.

Here is Liddell and Scott:

of the persons in a family,
1. race, stock, family, Hom., etc.; ... according to his family, Ib.; ... by birth-right, Od.; ... by descent, Il.:-of horses, a breed, Ib.:-generally, ... in kind, Hdt.:-also a tribe, nation, ... Aesch.
2. a race, generation

Hope that helps some.

Regards,
Don Johnson
Jer 33.3
Mark Perry said…
There we go, Don. I hadn't thought of looking to the word generation for wiggle room. So these events kind of summarize God's post-cross/pre-Kingdom dealing with national Israel? I could go for that.
Unknown said…
I read recently that the glory refers to the transfiguration. Try Bible Knowledge Commentary on 2 Peter 1:16-18. I think that's where I saw it. Or it may have been notes in Ryrie's Study Bible. Sorry, I can't remember this late at night.
Don Johnson said…
Hi Mark, yes, it is really a promise that Israel will last until the end.

I am kind of into dispensationalism today. We did Daniel 2, 7-8 last Wednesday night, Dan 3-6 this AM and Dan 9 following that. I don't see how you can apply a literal hermeneutic to these passages and come away with anything other than a dispensational view.

Of course... others differ.

Regards,
Don Johnson
Jer 33.3
Unknown said…
I thought it was interesting that you were asking about this as I just preached on 2 Peter 1:16-21 last night. While we didn't specifically address the statement you are asking about, I did read a bit about it.

Here's what Ryrie said about Matt. 16:28: "This was fulfilled when the disciples witnessed the Transfiguration (17:1-8), which was, in miniature, a preview of the kingdom, with the Lord appearing in a state of glory (Dan. 7:9-14)."

In BKCNT (p. 59), Loius A. Barbieri Jr. says, "This statement has caused many to misunderstand the kingdom program, for they wonder how the disciples saw the Lord coming in his kingdom. The explanation is found in the following event, the transfiguration (17:1-8)."

Also, Kenneth O. Gangel says, in BKCNT (p. 868), "the tranfiguration was designed to show the three apostles, Peter, James, and John, what Christ would be like in His glory, to give them a foretaste of His kingdom."
Mark Perry said…
Andy, that interpretation works for Matthew 16:28, but I don't think the transfiguration is anywhere in view here in Mark 13. The context is clearly the Second Coming of Christ (or "the Day of the Lord," as the OT prophets like to call it).

In Matthew 16:28, Jesus says, "Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom." The very next verse (17:1) begins the Transfiguration narrative, a "sneak preview" if you will of the glory of Christ's coming kingdom.

In Mark 13, we have Jesus describing the Tribulation and the Second Coming of Christ and saying this "generation" (not individuals standing there) will not pass away until all these things happen.

I think we're talking about two different things here. I'm liking Don's suggestion more and more— it's growing on me.
Unknown said…
My bad. I was so interested in my recent study, that I was thinking it was a parallel passage.

The Ryrie Study Bible agrees with Don. "No one living when Jesus spoke these words lived to see 'all these things' come to pass. However, the Greek word can mean 'race' or 'family,' which makes good sense here; i.e., the Jewish race will be preserved, in spite of terrible persecution, until the Lord comes."
Andy Efting said…
Mark,

This is an exceedingly difficult passage but let me explain what I understand the passage to be saying. This will have to be very brief. I will leave filling in the wholes to the reader....


First, I see the passage dividing into four sections: 13:5-13, 13:14-27, 13:28-31, and 13:32-37. I take verses 5-13 to refer to the time up to and including the Fall of Jerusalem. This will appear to the disciples to be the end of the world but Jesus specifically says that the end is not yet (13:7). Instead, it is only the beginning of sorrows or birth pangs. They are feeling Braxton Hicks contractions or the very beginning stages of labor, not the very end. It seems like the end of the age but its not.

Verse 14 begins a section that seems to indicate a different time altogether, when the abomination of desolation occurs. Mark starts to talk about “those days” in a way that corresponds to the Day of the Lord in OT parlance. The use of “when you shall hear” in 13:7 and “when you shall see” in 13:14 also seems to be specifying two different time periods. I see this section to be referring to the Day of the Lord.

Next comes two parables. The parable of the fig tree in 13:28-31 refers, I believe, to the time period of 13:5-13. It specifically says you should be able to observe signs and know what’s coming – “when you see these things come to pass, know that it is nigh.” “These things” refers back to the “things which must needs be” in 13:6. “It” would then refer to the destruction of Jerusalem. This parable then directly answers the disciples question in 13:4 – it will occur within this generation.

The second parable must refer to a different time period because it specifically says that no man can know “that day or that hour.” The first parable says you can observe and know while the second parable says that you can’t know and so you have to be watchful. I honestly don’t see how both parables can refer to the same time period. Consequently, I take this parable to be referring to the time of the Day of the Lord mentioned in 13:14-27.

There are certainly difficulties with this interpretation but there are difficulties with every interpretation. This is a hard passage. My interpretation is a combination of what Lane (NICNT), Edwards (Pillar), and France (NIGTC) teach. None of these guys say it exactly this same way but it’s in the ballpark.
Mark Perry said…
Thanks, Andy. The only thing I could think of when I read the passage was an extended "two different time periods" scheme like this where "all these things" didn't actually refer to all of them. Don's suggestion surprised me with its simplicity. Thanks for your work on this. I appreciate your time in writing it out.